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AD70 Dispensationalism: According to that view, AD70 was the end of 'this age' and the start of the 'age to come'.    Those who lived before AD70 could only 'see in part' and such, lacking the resurrection and redemptive blessings which supposedly came only when Herod's Temple in Jerusalem fell.    Accordingly, AD70 was not only the end of Old Testament Judaism, but it was also the end of the revelation of Christianity as seen in the New Testament.


"Full preterist" material is being archived for balanced representation of all preterist views, but is classified under the theological term hyper (as in beyond the acceptable range of tolerable doctrines) at this website.  The classification of all full preterism as Hyper Preterism (HyP) is built upon well over a decade of intense research at, and the convictions of the website curator (a former full preterist pastor).  The HyP theology of final resurrection and consummation in the fall of Jerusalem, with its dispensational line in AD70 (end of old age, start of new age), has never been known among authors through nearly 20 centuries of Christianity leading up to 1845, when the earliest known full preterist book was written.  Even though there may be many secondary points of agreement between Historical/Modern Preterism and Hyper Preterism, their premises are undeniably and fundamentally different.



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Hyper Preterism: Defining "Hyper Preterism"- Criticisms from the Inside - Criticisms from the Outside || Progressive Pret | Regressive Pret | Former Full Preterists | Pret Scholars | Normative Pret | Reformed Pret | Pret Idealism | Pret Universalism

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It is important to keep in mind that many ideas and doctrines full preterism appeals to - such as the complete end of the Old Covenant world in AD70 - are by no means distinctive to that view.   Many non HyPs believe this as well, so one need not embrace the Hyper Preterist system in order to endorse this view.   Following are exceptional doctrines which, so far as I've seen, are only taught by adherents of Hyper Preterism.:


  • All Bible Prophecy was Fulfilled By AD70

  • Atonement Incomplete at Cross ; Complete at AD70

  • The Supernatural Power of Evil Ended in AD70

  • The Spirit of Antichrist was Destroyed in AD70

  • "The Consummation of the Ages" Came in AD70

  • "The Millennium" is in the Past, From AD30 to AD70

  • Nothing to be Resurrected From in Post AD70 World ; Hades Destroyed

  • The Christian Age Began in AD70 ; Earth Will Never End

  • "The Day of the Lord" was Israel's Destruction ending in AD70

  • The "Second Coming" of Jesus Christ Took Place in AD70-ish

  • The Great Judgment took place in AD70 ; No Future Judgment

  • The Law, Death, Sin, Devil, Hades, etc. Utterly Defeated in AD70

  • "The Resurrection" of the Dead and Living is Past, Having Taken Place in AD70

  • The Context of the Entire Bible is Pre-AD70 ; Not Written To Post AD70 World

(under construction)

  • Baptism was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Lord's Prayer was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Lord's Supper was for Pre-AD70 Era (Cessationism)

  • The Holy Spirit's Paraclete Work Ceased in AD70 (Cessationism)

  • The Consummation in AD70 Caused Church Offices to Cease (Cessationism)

  • The Resurrection in AD70 Changed the "Constitutional Principle" of Marriage (Noyesism)

  • Israel and Humanity Delivered into Ultimate Liberty in AD70 (TransmillennialismTM)

  • The Judgment in AD70 Reconciled All of Mankind to God ; All Saved (Preterist Universalism)

  • Adam's Sin No Longer Imputed in Post AD70 World ; No Need to be Born Again (Preterist Universalism)

  • When Jesus Delivered the Kingdom to the Father in AD70, He Ceased Being The Intermediary (Pantelism/Comprehensive Grace?)

  • The Book of Genesis is an Apocalypse; is About Creation of First Covenant Man, not First Historical Man (Covenantal Preterism)


Little Verse -- Big Controversy!
Matthew 24:36

By Jim Gunter

There is one particular verse in the New Covenant Scriptures which, although relatively short in content, is of enormous significance as it relates to our eschatological thinking in the 21st century Christian community . This is because of the fact that it has much to do with how we think regarding the "Parousia" (coming, presence, arrival), which is most often spoken of as the "Second Coming of our Lord Jesus Christ." This little verse is from a statement made by our Master in Mat.24:36 in His "Olivet Discourse," and reads: "But of that DAY and HOUR no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone."

In this little piece, it will not be my purpose to engage in an in-depth study of all the elements contained in The Lord's "Olivet Discourse," but to simply express my modified understanding of this verse. I say "modified" because just a few years ago, I began to ask myself many questions regarding, not only this verse, but a number of those passages over which brethren seemed to be divided as to their meaning. Well, this is one of those verses which fit that mould, and I will confess to you; I have now come to a different conclusion as to its meaning from my former thinking. I sincerely hope that if you find MY understanding on this little verse to be different from that of your own, you will not infer from that that I am saying or implying "I'm right and you're wrong," because I believe that we are ALL on the same quest for a better understanding of our Father's Word, and that not ONE of us has the corner on the truth on Bible matters. No two of us has reached the same conclusion on every passage of Scripture. So, I say, thank God for His marvelous and wonderful "grace," otherwise we would ALL be without hope; right?

I would like to begin by relating to you just how I had always understood this verse. You examine it, and just see if this may possibly coincide with yours! For some 33 years, my understanding was like this: Mat.24:36 was a sort of "pivotal" verse in the discourse, in which Jesus, in His instructions to His apostles, beginning with vs. 4 and going thru vs. 35, deals specifically with "The 70 A.D. Destruction of Jerusalem," but then in verse 36, He suddenly shifts gears, so to speak, and changes the subject from the destruction of Jerusalem, to then explain to them what was to come many, many centuries later when time and the universe would come to an end, at which time, He would also effect The Resurrection, and The Final Judgment." This was also the position that my church subscribed to as well.

Anytime I was explaining my position of vs.36, I would put the greatest emphasis on the words "that day," with a raise in my tone of voice. So, I would exclaim, "But on 'THAT DAY' knoweth no man etc.," in an effort to have Jesus now beginning to talk about a different subject and era of time far into their future---and even our own! However, I think that you would agree with me that the view of ANY person or group, neither makes a view "right" or "wrong." The "truth" is "the truth," no matter what, and certainly "truth" never fears investigation!

Brethren, In my advancing years, I have come to realize that in those former years of my Bible study, one critical mistake I was making in my approach to study, was that I failed to be careful to look at the New Covenant Scriptures through the eyes of the 1st century disciple. I viewed them from afar; through a 20th or 21st century lens, and as a result, I do believe that I deprived myself of understanding them as those 1st century disciples would have understood them! In other words, I failed to take into account "audience relevance." I was not thinking about just what these things spoken by Jesus and the things written by the inspired apostles, would have meant to those to whom they were directly spoken and/or written. But thanks be to God, I'm beginning to learn! And so, NOW, I strive to keep ever before me, the fact that the words of our Master were NOT written "to" me, but rather "for" me. No, they were actually written TO those disciples in the 1st century. As someone else has well said, "We are reading someone else's mail!" I truly hope that I am making sense here!

Just to give you an example of this, please allow me to cite a passage, which I believe demonstrates exactly what I'm talking about! It's a passage that we will also deal with again just a little further along in this thesis: In Mat.24:15,16, Jesus said, "Therefore when you see the abomination of desolation which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place (let the reader understand), then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains." Now, when I study this passage, I believe that it's incumbent upon me to view it through the eyes of the ones to whom Jesus was directly speaking viz., His apostles, which is evidenced by Vv3,4. As I consider this warning by Jesus, I see it as a warning NOT to "me," but rather to His apostles to whom He was speaking. They (the apostles and those 1st century disciples in Jerusalem and Judea), were warned to "flee to the mountains" when they saw "the abomination of desolation;" This was not a warning to us today! For this reason, I see a need for considering these things in a 1st century context. To do otherwise, beloved, I believe, thwarts our purpose of understanding correctly, the message conveyed.

Again, in this 24th chapter of Matthew, we learn that ALL THE THINGS that Jesus is having to say in the entire chapter is being spoken directly to these apostles. Further, I understand that He is speaking them in response to questions asked of Him BY the apostles (vs.3). And I also see that their questions were prompted by His statement to them in vs.2 regarding the complete and total destruction of "the temple," which was so revered by the Jews. But yes, it was to be razed to the ground!

Now, there is one other thing which I firmly believe to be paramount to the best understanding of Chapter 24, and that is, to first make a close examination of Chapter 23, for it's there that we find the background for all that is said in Chapter 24. Now in this chapter 23, one learns that Jesus was speaking IN "the temple" TO the rulers of the Jews, the scribes and Pharisees, Sadducees, the people, and also His disciples. This would be His "last" time to teach in this, the very "epicenter" of the Jews' religion. Upon a careful reading of Chapter 23, Vv.29-39 in particular, we learn that Jesus is excoriating the Jews for their " gross hypocrisy" and "murder of the Prophets!"

Then, notice carefully what He says to them beginning in vs.34. He first tells them that He is going to send them "prophets, wise men, scribes etc.," and that, "some of them YOU (the Jewish rulers) will kill and crucify, and some of them YOU will scourge in YOUR synagogues, and persecute from city to city." Now, please watch vs. 35 and following: "That upon YOU (1st century Jewish rulers) may fall the guilt of ALL the RIGHTEOUS BLOOD SHED ON EARTH, from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, whom YOU murdered between the temple and the altar. Truly I say to you (1st century Jews), all these things shall come upon THIS GENERATION (that 1st century generation of Jews)

In vs.37 He weeps over Jerusalem when He declared, "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, who KILLS THE PROPHETS, and stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, the way a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, and you were unwilling. Behold, your house (the temple) is being left to you desolate. For I say to you (1st century Jews), from now on you shall not see Me until YOU say, "blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord."

Brothers and sisters, when Jesus said "this generation," it bears mentioning that the Greek word used here for generation is "genea" which the lexicographers and linguists, almost without exception, render, "all the people alive at one time." I bring this out because it has been suggested by some that it means "this race of people," which of course is not according to the Greek. The Greek word for "race" is "genos," which the inspired writer, Matthew, did not use.

So, I believe that we can correctly ascertain from all these things in Chapter 23, that they are what precipitated those things which follow in chapter 24, where Jesus and His apostles are now leaving the temple. As they depart, His apostles call to His attention, the magnificence and beauty that adorned the many buildings which made up the temple complex, to which Jesus replied in vs.2, ".Do you not see all these things? Truly I say to you, not one stone here shall be left upon another, which will not be torn down." Wow! To me, it's obvious here, just why the apostles pulled their Lord aside, upon ascending the Mount of Olives, and asked Him the questions recorded in Vs.3 viz., "...tell us WHEN will these things be, and what will be the SIGN of YOUR COMING, and of the END OF THE AGE?"

Beloved, it seems to me that we learn some things simply from the very questions they asked Jesus. The very structure of their questions suggests to me that they associated several things with His "parousia" (coming): (1) The destruction of the temple--23:38; 24:2; (2) The destruction of the city of Jerusalem and (3) the nation --23:37; and (4) The end of the age. This conclusion, in my opinion, is further strengthened by the very interesting fact that Jesus said "the end of the AGE" not "the end of the WORLD" as the KJV unfortunately renders it. The reason for this is that the Greek word here is the word "aion," which translates to "age" (Old Covenant Age--emph. mine JG) and NOT "world." The Greek word for "world" (universe) would be "kosmos" and NOT "aion." Most all of the more recent translations have corrected this. Folks, this clears up, in my own mind, one very crucial fact: That the apostles DID NOT even ask Jesus about the end of the "universe" (kosmos), but rather "the end of the Old Covenant Age!"

Upon becoming aware of these things, it caused me to ask myself: "With all the remarkable and frightening things which Jesus had just described, and which loomed so large in the near future of their own generation, why would these apostles be worried or concerned as to the "physical universe" coming to an end? Brethren, I really don't think that would be the thing on their minds at this point. Why, then, should their Master even talk about such a thing? It just seems to me that He would have stuck to the subject at hand and simply answered the questions which they asked! I believe that's exactly what He did! And for this reason, it is my conclusion that they associated all four of the things mentioned above, with "His parousia" (coming).

As we now look further at their questions in 24:3, it would appear that they wanted to know two things with regard to what their Lord has just said: First, they want to know WHEN these things were going to happen (See also Mk.13:4; Lk.21:7), and then, secondly, they wanted to know what would be "THE SIGN" that they should watch for, which would signal that these things were about to occur (See also Mk.13:4; Lk.21:7).

Now, in Mat.24:4, Jesus begins answering their questions, as He begins with the "sign" question first. However, before He tells them exactly what "the sign" is, He cautions them about some terrible things that they could expect to come to pass BEFORE they would see "the sign;" things which would precede the "sign;" things which would "mislead many," and by which many would be deceived! But, as He said in vs.6,13,14, "the end is not yet." (Please do read Vv4-14! Now you will find His answer to their "sign" question ultimately in vs.15. There, He tells them exactly "the sign" they were to watch for; the sign which would signal His coming in judgment on Jerusalem, the nation of Israel, and the temple; bringing to an end the Old Covenant Age. He says that the "sign" would be, "when you see the abomination of desolation spoken of through Daniel the Prophet, standing in the Holy place." Luke, writing to a Gentile, recorded it this way in Lk.21:20,21: "But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies (Roman armies and allies--emph. mine JG), then recognize that her desolation is at hand. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains etc.."

So the answer to the question of what the "sign" would be when Jesus would return was: "When they saw Jerusalem surrounded by the Roman armies." This now brings us to their other question which was "When" would this be? But before we proceed with the answer to that question, brethren, we should pause for just a moment and take careful note of a central fact so as not to miss the meaning of Jesus' words in Mat.24:36, that NO ONE knew the "day" or "hour" when the Son of Man would come. Please notice that in all the words of Jesus, from vs. 4 thru vs.15, that NOWHERE in all of those verses does He ever speak of an exact "day" or "hour" when He would come to render vengeance on Jerusalem, The Jewish nation, and the temple! No, brethren, He just doesn't do it, but rather, He tells them of events that they could expect to see which would PRECEDE His coming.

Now, as to just "when" the judgment would come, let us continue with Vv16-35 as Jesus speaks of the terrible "tribulation" which was to come upon the people (vs.21,22), which had also been spoken of by Daniel in Dan.12:1. Then there were other amazing things that were going to happen during that period immediately after the tribulation (vs.29), with the sun being darkened, and the moon not giving its light, and the stars falling from heaven etc.. (See also Ax.2:19-21). He says also, that at that time, they would see the sign of the Son of Man in Heaven, and that He would send forth His angels and gather His elect from the four winds etc.. (Vv29,30,31) And finally, their Master tells them in vs.33, ".when you see all these things, recognize that He is near; right at the door. And then, with vs.34, we find the answer to their other question as to "when" these things would come to pass. The Lord, very clearly exclaims, "Truly I say to you, THIS GENERATION WILL NOT PASS AWAY until ALL THESE THINGS TAKE PLACE." Wow! Could The Lord have made it any clearer than that? These things would all come to pass "in that then present, 1st century generation." Then He proceeds in vs.37, and continuing on to the end of the chapter, and into Chapter 25, to elaborate on the suddenness of His coming. And those who were not His disciples (the unbelieving Jews), would be caught unawares, and destroyed, just as those ante-deluvians in Noah's day etc.. (See also 1Thes.5:1-10; Mk.13:29,30; Lk.21:31-33).

But now, let's go back to Mat.24, and since we have now covered all of the words of Jesus down through vs.35, we come to that most controversial little verse; vs.36. Let's cite it one last time! Jesus said to the apostles: But of that 'day' and 'hour' NO ONE KNOWS, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone."

So, just what does Jesus mean by these words? Is He in fact speaking of a different event from that spoken of from vs.1 through vs.35? Does He now suddenly shift gears and begin speaking of something of which His disciples have NOT even asked Him about? Gentle reader, we noted this earlier: From vs.1 through vs.15 of Matthew 24, as Jesus answered their "sign" question, He NEVER ONCE said anything at all about an exact "day" or "hour" when they could expect "the sign." And now if you will re-read Vv16-35, where He answers their "when" question, you will also notice again, that Jesus NEVER ONCE gives them an exact "day" or "hour" as to when "His coming" and "the end" would be. But He did give them a general time-frame as to when it would be. Yes, He said that it would be during THAT GENERATION.

Now, brethren, at this point, and with these facts in mind, I would like to ask some very simple, albeit, pertinent questions: Since Jesus does not mention anything at all about an exact "day" or "hour" of "His coming" in all of the first 35 verses, why O why, when we get to vs.36, should we exegete that verse as though He HAD given an exact day and hour in those first 35 verses? How can we reasonably and fairly just assume that The Lord is suddenly now changing the subject in vs.36, and have Him begin speaking of ANOTHER DAY of which the apostles haven't even asked Him about?

Dear brothers and sisters, isn't He simply being consistent and continuing to answer the questions that He was asked of His apostles? If He WERE actually changing the subject in vs.36, wouldn't that totally confuse His apostles? Beloved, I would like to offer what I believe to be implicit in the words of our Lord; things which I believe can be inferred from His words in both vs.36, and all the things He said in the 35 verses leading up to that verse! You then can judge for yourself if it sounds plausible. After all the many, many things that He has intimated to His apostles in the first 35 verses, and having, never once, spoken of an exact "day" or "hour" as when they could expect them to come to pass, I understand our Lord to simply be explaining to them ( and I will paraphrase): "Men, I want you to know that as far as an exact "day" or "hour" on which you can expect all these things to come to pass, I cannot say, because NO ONE knows; the angels don't know, in fact, neither do I, the Son of Man, know. Only The Father knows the exact "day" or "hour." I can only tell you that it will be "in this generation." Beloved, wouldn't that be totally consistent and in perfect harmony with everything that He has said all throughout this discourse? Personally, I see absolute continuity in His statement in vs.36. But, of course, you can make your own determination about that.

So, in closing, let me say that I understand our Lord to be speaking of the same "coming" in Vv37-51 as His "coming" spoken of in Vv3-35! However, if we, when arriving at vs.36, should suddenly change the subject of our Master's conversation, from an imminent "coming" to some event that we may understand as not coming to pass for many, many centuries in the far distant future, then I see a total breakdown in continuity! Now, I don't say that you have to agree with me, but I would only ask you to simply consider these things regarding this passage. If you disagree with me, then that's alright; that doesn't mean that you are my enemy! I would welcome any comments, questions, or explanations you may have. Maybe you can help me, for I certainly don't consider myself to have all the answers.

Gentle reader, if you are still with me at this point, I wish to thank you and I do hope that I haven't wearied you. I apologize for going on so long, but it seemed necessary to lay out as clearly as possible what I do understanding of this most interesting and intriguing discourse of our Lord. And still, there were so many of the details of our Lord's Parousia that we were not able to cover in this study due to constraints of time and space. Those will be for another time.

Thank you so much, and may the Lord richly bless you with His grace and peace.

What do YOU think ?

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Comment Box Disabled For Security

12 January 2006


Thanks Jim.. great stuff!

Date: 12 Jan 2006
Time: 23:03:19


Sorry, author. You're still looking at things through a 21st-century lens -- an uninformed Gentile lens -- playing the centuries-long guessing game of trying to understand what Christ was talking about in Mt. 24 -- and committing the specific centuries-long error of trying to understand the day and hour of Christ's parousia (and thus of his wedding) without bothering to study and understand the ancient, typifying wedding customs of OT Israel. Do preterists suffer from ignorance born of arrogance or arrogance born of ignorance? Fortunately, author, you won't have to read these stinging comments because admin. will filter them out as spam (spam being any ideas that present an unmanageable challenge to the erroneous belief that Christ's parousia occurred in AD 70).

[whatever you say, anonymous (cambra)...  your comments are not nice though.. any chance you could filter your words for meanness before posting?]

Date: 28 Jan 2006
Time: 11:53:27


I'm one of the few preterist's from Romania and I thank you for your studies. God bless.

Date: 15 Jan 2006
Time: 22:12:08


Far worse meanness is involved in the Christ-demeaning belief of AD 70 preterists that 1) the Israelites were freed from the terrible bondage of the law of Moses and 2) the way into heaven was opened by Titus, the pagan son of a pagan Roman emperor, through earthly and natural means in AD 70 rather than by Christ, the Son of God, through heavenly and spiritual means in AD 30. Re: 1) Christ said he came the first time to fulfill the law and thus it passed away in AD 30 (Mt. 5:17:18) and re: 2) those who believed in Christ after he was raised from the dead were already raised up with him and seated with him in heaven (Eph. 2:5,6) long before AD 70. Further, and equally mean, AD 70 preterism encourages atheism by leading people to believe that Gen. 1:1 refers to the creation of Israel and not the creation of the world.

Date: 26 Apr 2006
Time: 21:48:58


I believe that you rightly divided the word of God,and this can only be done through careful study and rmoving all predjuice beliefs from one's mind.(2Timothy 2:15). One thought I would like to interject on (Matt. 24:36 ) is this is Jesus,the SON of MAN speaking. (emphasises on Man).Before I go any farther, I belive Jesus to be the SON of GOD, making him to be DEITY and equal to God. But God is omnipotent,(all powerful), omnipresence, (is everywhere),and omniscience (all knowledge).
If this be the case, why did Jesus not know the exact time if God knows? Read Phillipians 1:5-8. Look at verse 7 He made Himself of no REPUTATION, AND TOOKservant,and coming in the LIKENESS of MAN.


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