BOOKS: BIBLICAL STUDIES (1500BC-AD70) / EARLY CHRISTIAN PRETERISM (AD50-1000) / FREE ONLINE BOOKS (AD1000-2008)
AD70 Dispensationalism: According to
that view, AD70 was the end of 'this age' and the start of the 'age to come'.
Those who lived before AD70 could only 'see in part' and such, lacking
the resurrection and redemptive blessings which supposedly came only
Herod's Temple in Jerusalem
fell. Accordingly, AD70 was not only the end of Old
Testament Judaism, but it was also the end of the revelation of
Christianity as seen in the New Testament.
material is being archived for balanced representation of all preterist views,
but is classified under the theological term hyper (as in beyond
the acceptable range of tolerable doctrines) at this website. The
classification of all full preterism as Hyper Preterism (HyP) is built
upon well over a decade of intense research at PreteristArchive.com, and
the convictions of
the website curator (a
former full preterist pastor). The HyP
theology of final resurrection and consummation in the fall of Jerusalem, with its dispensational line in AD70
(end of old age, start of new age), has never been known among authors
through nearly 20 centuries of Christianity leading up
to 1845, when the earliest known full preterist book was written.
Even though there may be many secondary points of agreement between
Historical/Modern Preterism and Hyper Preterism, their premises are undeniably and
THE FOLLOWING MATERIAL HAS BEEN CLASSIFIED AS "HYPER PRETERIST"
WARNING: THE FOLLOWING MATERIAL HAS BEEN CLASSIFIED AS "HYPER PRETERIST"
SOME DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES OF SYSTEMATIZED HYPER PRETERISM
It is important to keep in mind that many ideas and doctrines full preterism appeals to - such as the complete end of the Old Covenant world in AD70 - are by no means distinctive to that view. Many non HyPs believe this as well, so one need not embrace the Hyper Preterist system in order to endorse this view. Following are exceptional doctrines which, so far as I've seen, are only taught by adherents of Hyper Preterism.:
DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES TAUGHT BY STANDARD FULL PRETERISM
DISTINCTIVE DOCTRINES TAUGHT BY VARIOUS FORMS
The Manifestation of the Sons of God
By Mike Krall
Who are the true children of the promise? Who are the true circumcision? Who are the true Jews and who are of the synagogue of Satan? These questions may seem to have an obvious answer to any Christian today but it was not so during the first century. The Judeaizers were claiming that unless one became a Jew by being circumcised after the manner of Moses there was no claiming to be part of the covenants of promise. When one sees the significance of this and what took place during the transitional period between the cross and the destruction of Jerusalem, which consummated the Old Covenant, it sheds some light on what Paul meant by the manifestation of the sons of God in Romans 8.
In almost all of the epistles of the New Testament some reference is made to the conflict between the Jews of that day and the Christians. For example in Galatians Paul is dealing with the very issue of what the Christian's relationship to the Old Covenant is and whether or not one needs to be circumcized after the manner of Moses to be saved. Then in Ephesians after Paul talks about the middle wall of partition being taken away in Christ and the Gentiles that were afar off are now brought nigh unto God. Then in the beginning of chapter 3 Paul says "FOR THIS CAUSE I am a prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles."
One does not have to read too far in the book of Acts in following Paul's journeys to see that he was persecuted by the Jews because of his preaching that there is only one hope of Israel and it included the Gentiles also. Then in the Thessalonian letters Paul specifically deals those that troubled the Thessalonians and how God would repay them for the wrath of God "has come upon them to the uttermost." In the first letter to the Thessalonians it is of real significance because there we read Paul saying that it was the Jews that "both killed the Lord, and their own prophets" and "forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved" and then he says that they have "filled up their sins..." Then in the second letter he speaks in the first chapter how it is "a righteous thing with God to recompense those that trouble you." Then we have the letter to the Hebrews which was written to Jewish believers tempted to go back into Judaism no doubt due to persecution by the Judiaizers as the letter indicates.
This climate runs all through the New Testament and can be seen especially in the life of Paul. One cannot read much of the New Testament and see the conflict between the Judiaizers and the Christians and how the Judiaizers were constant thorns in Paul's side.
Once we understand this framework of the New Testament we can better understand the significance of those passages that speak of the destruction of Jerusalem and where it fits, if at all, in God's plan in the unfolding of redemptive history.
When our Lord gave his Olivet Discourse he mentioned the destruction of Herod's Temple and the signs that would precede it. Few deny that at least part of the discourse is referring to 70AD when the temple was destroyed and Jerusalem was ransacked. But when one goes to the discourse in Luke 21 there is no denying the meaning of our Lord's words since the topic in question is solely the temple and its destruction. No other question is asked nor is any other topic discussed at the outset. In is in this particular version of the discourse that our Lord says some very important words in verse 22 "for these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written will be fulfilled." That is a very important verse and its implications, we hope to prove, have some far reaching effects.
What is the connection between the destruction of the temple and the question of who are the true children of promise that we have asked? Is there actually a connection between the manifestation of the sons of God and the destruction of the temple? When one sees the significance of the dismantling of the Old Covenant system then its importance and its implication in relationship to the identification of the true people of God will come into sharp focus.
Paul tells us in Galatians 4 that the two women Hager and Sarah are the two covenants. What we see in this illustration is the Old Covenant system represented by Hager and her son Ishmael who was thought to be the child of promise till Isaac came along which was representative of the New Covenant. Once Isaac (the real child of promise) came on the scene there was conflict and friction as to who was the true heir. We read in verse 29 of that chapter that the one born after the flesh (Ishmael - which was a picture of national Israel under the law) persecuted the one born after the Spirit (Isaac- which was a picture of the New Covenant believer living in the Spirit) EVEN SO IT IS NOW." This time period of the two living in the same house till the bondwoman and her son were cast out is a picture of the transitional period from the cross to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70A.D. The cross was the time of the birth of Isaac, the coming in of the New Covenant and the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem was the time of the casting out of the bondwoman. The transitional time from 30 - 70 A.D. was the time when spiritual Ishmael persecuted spiritual Isaac before he was cast out. The casting out of the bondwoman, 70A.D., was the manifestation of the sons of God. (Some have said that the bond woman was cast out at the cross but Paul's words which we emphasized "even so it is now" show that the bond woman had not been cast out at the time Paul wrote the letter.)
It was at the time of the casting out of this bond woman and her son, the Old Covenant that the true heir was made known, the church, and the fullness of the Gentiles came in. As long as the Old Covenant system with its sacrifices was intact then the New Covenant community had a real obstacle before it as to so as to its manifestation as the true people of God. The Levitical priesthood had to be cast out before Christ as a priest according to the order of Melchizidek could take his rightful place. Jesus was not from the tribe of Levi so according to the Levitical order he could not be a priest. Until the Levitical Priesthood was done away Christ in his priestly/king office could not be fully manifested. It was at that time, the dismantling of the Old Covenant and the Levitical Priesthood, that Christ returned a second time without sin UNTO SALVATION (Heb 9:28) whereby he is now reigning. If he has not returned then he is not here to reign and is therefore an absent king. But He did return, cast out the bondwoman and her son, brought in the days of vengeance whereby he redeemed his people, the elect of OT Israel, out of hades and all things written were fulfilled. He returned to a waiting congregation to bless the people, Lev 16: 16-17, and completed the redemption of the purchased possession. The Old Testament had to be fulfilled it could not merely be abolished at the cross. In order for "all Israel to be saved" the OT had to be fulfilled and it was in the days of vengeance which according to Isa 63:4 was the day of his redeemed.
It is this that Paul was referring to as being the manifestation of the sons of God. It was the time when the full manifestation of who the true people of God were. In Romans 8 we read that the earnest expectation of the creature waiteth for the manifestation of the sons of God. This word translated creature is the same word used many times to refer not to the physical creation but creatures themselves. In some cases such as 2cor 5 "a new creation" it is referring to the elect of God. In verse 21 of Romans 8 we are told that this creation itself shall also be delivered form the bondage of corruption INTO the glorious liberty of the children of God. Now can this be the physical creation? This is the Old Testament saints who had died in faith not receiving the promise. They had to be delivered from the "bondage of corruption" which was the Old Covenant law . Paul then says "and not only [they] but ourselves also." In addition to the Old Testament saints who have died and were waiting in Abraham's bosom for the resurrection, but the New Testament believer at that time was waiting for the the adoption "the redemption of OUR (plural) body (singular)" the redemption of the purchased possession. If Christ has not returned then redemption is not complete and we are not yet saved. For as we have stated he will appear a second time without sin UNTO salvation. Paul told the Romans that salvation was nearer then when they believed. Peter said that salvation was ready to be revealed. So if he has not appeared a second time then salvation is not yet finished. If he has not appeared a second time then he has not yet entered into his kingdom as he said he would in the lifetime of some living then Matt 16:27-28.
There are some that insist that there must be a renovation of the universe as well as a redeeming of the physical body and if one does not believe that they have Gnostic leanings if not pure gnosticism. Quiet the opposite is true for this reason. The basic tenant of gnosticism is that it teaches matter is evil. Some believe the physical body must be resurrected having the molecules come together and the exact same body and be resurrected else there is no salvation of the body and to say otherwise is gnosticism. But those that say that the physical fleshly body is evil and needs to be redeemed are falling into the very error they accuse us of. Sin does not reside in either the physical flesh and blood body nor the physical universe that some say must be renovated that fulfilled eschatology denies. This is to say matter is evil and needs redemption. But as we pointed out in Romans 8 it is not physical creation that is being spoken of.
If we will back up from Romans 8 into Romans 7 where Paul talks about the law and how sin taking occasion by the commandment wrought in him "all manner of concupiscence" and then read how he desire to be delivered "from the body of this death" we see something interesting. Paul is not referring to the fleshly body that will return to the dust. In the next chapter he says there is no more condemnation to those that walk after the spirit and not the flesh. Is that flesh he is speaking about the physical body? Note the next verse "for the law of the Spirit of life has set me free from the law of sin AND DEATH.". The law of sin and death is the law spoken of in Romans 7. Paul uses the term flesh a number of times to speak of the workings of the law to those under it. In Galatians 3:3"are ye so foolish having begun in the Spirit are ye now made perfect by the flesh?" Here is associates keeping the law of Moses with the work of the flesh as he does in Phil 3 where he mentions how he had reason to "trust in the flesh" where he was talking about the keeping of the law as a "Hebrew of the Hebrews".
So we see that Paul's desire for deliverance from the body of sin was the deliverance from the Old Covenant law that worked in him "all manner of concupiscence". It is a failure to see this connection that has led many to reject fulfilled eschatology based solely on the idea that both the physical body and the physical universe needs to be redeemed at the second coming. Another such reason is the curse that was put on the earth at the fall. These needs to be briefly examined to see that this has no merit to support and need for such a renovation.
In Genesis 8:21 after the flood we read:
And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more every thing living, as I have done.
Two things we see here. One is that he will no longer curse the ground. But he already did in Genesis and if the curse was still in effect this would make no sense. Whatever the curse was, it was reversed after the fall. Many will refer to Genesis 3:17-18 where we are told that "thorns and thistles shall it bring forth to thee and thou shall eat the herb of the field" as being the curse. Since we still have thorns and thistles the curse is not reversed. But notice where it says he will eat of the herb of the field. That is never looked at by many as part of the curse on the ground even though it is in the same sentence. When we revert back to Genesis 9 the verses following those previously read we notice this in the light of the "thou shalt eat the herb of the field":
2 And the fear of you and the dread of you shall be upon every beast of the earth, and upon every fowl of the air, upon all that moveth upon the earth, and upon all the fishes of the sea; into your hand are they delivered.
3 Every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for you; even as the green herb have I given you all things.
This change in man's relation to the earth appears to have some significance of the curse of the earth God promises to reverse in Genesis 8.
But note one other thing from our passage in Genesis 8 "neither will I again smite any more every thing living, as I have done." Now this cannot be part of the curse he is promising not to bring upon the earth for the very language "neither will I" speaks of something in addition to what was just said.
Some say that this just means that God will not destroy the earth in the manner he did. Not by water but the next time by fire. If one of our children did the something wrong and promised to not do it again as they just did but did the same thing in another manner will we not consider that as an act of dishonesty? We most certainly would but many attribute that very thing to God to avoid the clear implication of the passage that there is no passage in the Bible to support the end of the cosmological universe. God may have a plan to end it but it is something he has yet to reveal to us.
One final verse on this aspect of our study will shed some light on this subject. In Isaiah 9:6-7 we read
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
7 Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.
It is clear in this passage that his government will go on increasing without end. I ask how a government can increase without end if there is an end of the physical universe? Once the earth is ended and all of the elect are in the eternal state the increase of his government would cease.
But what about the resurrection? Paul says in 1Corinthinans 15 that at the resurrection mortality puts on immortality and death is swallowed up in victory. This seems to be another problem some have with fulfilled eschatology-the resurrection. Paul was quite clear that when the resurrection takes place death is swallowed up in victory. Paul actually says that at that time the saying that is written in Isaiah 25:8 will be brought to pass "death is swallowed up in victory. If we look at that passage in Isaiah 25 and its surrounding verses very few if any of the amil and postmil camp will deny that those verses are fulfulled in the gospel age.
Lets take a quick look at the passage in its context.
6 ¶ And in this mountain shall the LORD of hosts make unto all people a feast of fat things, a feast of wines on the lees, of fat things full of marrow, of wines on the lees well refined.
Now verse 6 is a verse that amils believe is clearly the gospel age. But the next verse is most interesting for it fits in with Paul's language concerning the Old Covenant and the vail it leaves over the eyes of those outside the gospel:
7 And he will destroy in this mountain the face of the covering cast over all people, and the vail that is spread over all nations.
We need to ask ourselves if this has happened. If it did not then no one that is a gentile is yet in the covenant people of God. Now here is our verse:
8 He will swallow up death in victory; and the Lord GOD will wipe away tears from off all faces; and the rebuke of his people shall he take away from off all the earth: for the LORD hath spoken it.
Are we to say that what has preceded is fulfilled at a different time? If so what do we do with the verse that follows?
9 ¶ And it shall be said in that day, Lo, this is our God; we have waited for him, and he will save us: this is the LORD; we have waited for him, we will be glad and rejoice in his salvation.
Unless one is willing to embrace the error of premillinial dispensationalism they have to see that this whole passage is indeed fulfilled in the consumation of the Old Covenant whereby all the people of God that have gone on to glory have put on immortality and are in the very presense of God.
If Paul and other Christians of a bygone generation have not put on their resurrection bodies then they are still naked are still living in time outside of eternity which is above time. Had they left time and entered eternity then how could they not have their resurrection bodies since that is something achieved in time? So if they are then still in a time dimension then they are not in the immediate presence of Christ in the Holiest of Holies.
In addition what we have here is the dilemma of what our relationship to the law is. According to Paul the sting of death is sin and the strength of sin is the law. Well if death has not been swallowed up in victory then death's sting which is sin is still there and the sting's strength which is the law is still there. So either they go out together or not. If death has not been swallowed up then the strength of the sting of that death is still in operation.
Where does this leave us? It leaves us with a New Covenant which is a fulfilled hope not one of waiting for yet more unfulfilled prophecy. If the New Covenant believer has been waiting for yet another stage of Christ's work then what makes the New Covenant any better than the Old? It still is a waiting stage for something yet to happen.
No the New Covenant is a fulfilled hope where the believer is living in the light of the full and complete redemption of our blessed Redeemer.
What do YOU think ?
It's hard to explain the spiritual things of the NT to preterists since their Bibles apparently begin with the OT references to God's covenants with Israel and don't contain the earlier OT references to God's covenants with the world (Adam and Noah). BOTH sets of covenants had to be fulfilled in the first century, and that's why Christ's parousia did NOT occur in AD 70.
The judgment of the world was connected to the judgment of Israel: "There will be signs in sun and moon and stars, and on the earth dismay among nations, in perplexity at the roaring of the sea and the waves, men fainting from fear and the expectation of the things which are coming upon the world; for the powers of the heavens will be shaken" (Luke 21:25, 26); "Be on guard, so that your hearts will not be weighted down with dissipation and drunkenness and the worries of life, and that day will not come on you suddenly like a trap; for it will come upon all those who dwell on the face of all the earth" (Luke 21:34, 35); "'Because you have kept the word of My perseverance, I also will keep you from the hour of testing, that hour which is about to come upon the whole world, to test those who dwell on the earth" (Revelation 3:10). As Luke 21 discusses the destruction of Jerusalem (Luke 21:5-7, 20-24), it is evident that the events of this passage, which were fulfilled in AD 70, had singificance to more than just the Jews. (The quote in Revelation, directed toward individuals, the church in Philadelphia, who were not in Judea, also shows the global significance of the event.) We are judged by the word of Christ (John 12:47, 48), which was preached in "all the world" prior to AD 70 (Matthew 24:14; Romans 10:13-18; Colossians 1:21-23) so that all could be judged by it! Moreover, while the judgment on Jerusalem was a physical event, it did indeed have spiritual consequences. Just as the shedding of Jesus' physical blood brought salvation (Matthew 26:27, 28; Romans 5:9; Ephesians 1:7; 2:13; Hebrews 8-10), the physical destruction of Jerusalem marked the end of the old world. In addition, Romans chapters 5-7 connect the issue of death and Adam with the issue of the Law of Moses. The events of the Jewish War and the destruction of Jerusalem, circa AD 70, relates to all these issues. Kenneth Perkins
KP: With respect to the Bible, typology rules and the personal opinions of preterists eventually will have to yield to it. OT judgments were natural, NT judgments are spiritual. The natural judgment of natural Egypt that occurred when natural Israel emerged safely from the Red Sea was a type of the spiritual judgment of spiritual Egypt (natural Israel - see Rev. 11:8) that occurred when Christ, the true Israel (compare Mt. 2:15 with Ex. 4:22 and Hos. 11:1), emerged safely from the tomb. Thus, the judgment of natural, Christ-rejecting Israel occurred in the spring of AD 30 and it was a spiritual judgment. Correct typology also reveals that the judgment at Christ's parousia 1) also was spiritual, and 2) involved the entire, natural, Christ-rejecting world, and 3) occurred at the end of the true first century, not in AD 70. The rejection of complete and consistent typology by preterists, dispensationalists and historicists creates the unfortunate impression that they are more interested in defending their varied and erroneous opinions than they are in knowing the whole truth about the first century.
To understand the first century, it will also be useful to read the comment entitled SOME PRICELESS INFORMATION added to KP's article on the Olivet Discourse that precedes the above article.
which verse of the bible says that the enest espectation of the world egerly wait for the manifestion of the sons of God
Date: 08 Apr 2007
Email PreteristArchive.com's Sole Developer and Curator, Todd Dennis
(todd @ preteristarchive.com)
Opened in 1996