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Matthew 16:27-28 / Todd Dennis - Matthew 16:27-28 is NOT a "Preterist Time Indicator" pointing to AD70 (2008) "If AD70 figures into the imagery of Matthew 16:27-28 at all (even though it is not mentioned, or even so much as hinted at in the text), it would be as a visible, external show of these very personal revelations (per Israel’s entire role as visible schoolmaster of invisible things). This is also likely considering both Jesus and Paul's correlation of the fall of the temple with the death of the body (John 2:19 ; 1 Cor. 3:17)"
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Pre-A.D.70 Hebrew Work? James Tabor: A Hebrew Gospel of Matthew (1999) "Eusebius, H.E. 3.24.6 "Matthew had first preached to Hebrews, and when he was on the point of going to others he transmitted in writing in his native language the Gospel according to himself, and thus supplied by writing the lack of his own presence to those from whom he was sent." Papias (Eusebius, H.E. 3.39.16) Irenaeus, Adv. Haer. 3.1.1 Origen (Eusebius, H.E. 6.25.4) Eusebius, H.E. 3.24.6 Epiphanius (ca. 315-403), bishop of Salamis, refers to a gospel used by the Ebionites (Panarion 30. 13.1-30.22.4). He says it is Matthew, called "According to the Hebrews" by them, but says it is corrupt and mutilated. He says Matthew issued his Gospel in Hebrew letters. He quotes from this Ebionite Gospel seven times. These quotations appear to come not from Matthew but from some harmonized account of the canonical Gospels.
"The Kingdom of Heaven is at hand."
(Matt. 3:2)
LANGUAGE OF ORIGIN Eusebius Pamphilus "Pantaenus is said to have gone even to the Indies, and found there, among those who acknowledged Christ, the Gospel of Matthew which had reached them before his arrival. These believers Bartholomew the Apostle had instructed in the Christian faith, and left with them the book of Matthew, written in Hebrew, and it was preserved among them down to the time named." (H. E. v. 19) DATE OF COMPOSITION D.A. Carson (1984) D.
J. Conklin "So they decided to use the money to buy the potter's field as a burial place for foreigners. That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day." - Matthew 27:7-8. Would someone writing after the fall of Jerusalem know where the Field of Blood was located (Mt. 27:8)? Would anyone be interested in a rumor from that day and age that His disciples had stolen His body (Mt 28:15)?" ("A Study on the Synoptic Gospels" Part 1: The Date of the Gospels) "A comparison of the Synoptic gospels reveals that Matthew refers to the Sadducees the most. It seems odd that he would do so if he wrote after the fall since they had already disappeared after the fall of Jerusalem because of their political cooperation with Rome." ("A Study on the Synoptic Gospels" Part 1: The Date of the Gospels) R.T. France (1985) "Other such indications are collected by Gundry into a detailed and persuasive argument for a date before AD70 for Matthew. Indeed, Gundry goes further and, after arguing that Luke-Acts, which he dates about AD63, was influenced by Matthew, concludes that Matthew was written before AD63. Whether this latter point be granted or not, there is certainly a good case to be made for a date in the sixties for the final 'publication' of Matthew." (The Gospel According to Matthew; p. 30) Jack P. Lewis (1976)
Thomas Newton Luigi Pareti LV Pfeifer Bo Reicke John Wenham (1991) "After Jesus and his disciples arrived in Capernaum, the collectors of the two-drachma tax came to Peter and asked, "Doesn't your teacher pay the temple tax?'" - Matthew 17:24
Send an email with your comments to todd @ preteristarchive.com Be sure to include the article name. They will be posted shortly upon receipt
CommentsI Just want to have some light. What ever happen to Matthew the Apostle? After Petecost although he is not mentioned by name, we can assume that he was in the upper room with the rest of the apostles. After that he is not mentioned ever again. Some light on this matter please, I am having nightmares with the subject.
Commentswhat was the exact date of composition of the 4 gospels, their main teaching, audience, symbols of 4 gospels and the meaning of the symbols?
CommentsI really wanted to know more about the character of the apostle(s) who wrote the gospels so that I may appreciate more of the context.
CommentsI have reciently discovered that what I have been seening in the scripture has a name...preterism. How strange the ministry has never brought up this subject up in any bible study though they are very learned men. God has been revealing various passages during my search for truth. Prayer brought a man named Pastor Larry Smith from El Campo Tx across my path, as it were. He wrote a very interesting book and suggested Bro. Bray book on Math. 24 which I am about to finish. So where to from here since obviously the rapture is a doctrine of error??? Everything I have ever believed about end times is in question. How does the age of man end??? Is there a general resurrection or is it on a person by person basis??? What prophecy is left unfinished??? Respectfully Bro. Butch
Commentshmmmmmm, it takes a truly great mind to twist inwardly. matthew mark luke and john may have been written earlier than 100 ad but they still got their facts absolutely wrong, from the virgin birth (that john clearly forgot) to the attendandance at the ressurection..... Did Paul mention that? and this confusion about james... fYs read the damn new testament for once --- its clearly stated james is jesus' brother im thinking this is a teenage site or one rubbed in the presence of other rubbers insult me at hag@ansto.gov.au
Comments17 Feb 2004 A blah blah: Gospel of Matthew should have been written within 12 years immediately after that Pentecost, the first preaching of resurrection. Why? The reason is of course, he, apostle Matthew, the levite, was the only Apostle in the "writing-profession" being a tax collector. If Mark (a mere hearer, not a personal witness to the Messiah) later, at the side of, for and in behalf of, Peter, came up with the idea of "hard-copy-preaching", even more did Matthew who personally RECEIVED that onerous commission. The contest of "early-ness" is only between Matthew and Mark, excluding Luke and John. Lk is an account by an honest "hearer", while John although insisting to be admitted as one by its named author, is EVIDENTLY a work by another "hearer" not by John himself! :: a) The tenor of John is evidently one of a gentile, not a jew, but John is 100% a jew in blood and mentality like the Lord; b) The preamble of the gospel sounds that of a gnostic-theologian, but John was not a theologian, he was a full pledge apostle who is not expected to engage in a theological circus, at the expense of blurring authenticity of testimony; c)not a single testimony is given that John was written in hebrew, but the apostle could have written it in native language only had he written it before his stay at pathmos. ERGO, the gospel of John could not have been written by him, neither could it have been written earlier than 110 CE. Sometimes the best scholarship is not enough, when it goes beyond the basic fence of common sense. Had the Lord Jesus intended theologians to arrogate the truths of the gospel He would have erected and accredited universities first, recruited the students of Hillel or Shamai, grant them Ph.D's then the commission. Or had He intended bishops to rule over-and-above the world, He would have established such "Priesthood-Kingship" first: He could have done better than what the uncircumcised Constantine did to establish an institutional church. But as you see, non of these did He. Why? Because the Lord's gospel was intended to be a final upgrade of his then existing Operating System (religion). The gospel synoptics merely as guides. Christianity then is a way of LIFE, a holiness founded upon his work of redemption, as the follower walks according to the Law and Prophets..... Shalom to all.
Commentsyou guys are the bessstttt
CommentsI think 1Tim. 5:17,18 is proof that Luke has an earlier date than most "higher critics" allow. Paul considers both Deut. 25:4 concerning the threshihng ox and Lk. 10:7 "The worker is worthy of his wages" to be regarded as equally inspired Scripture. Also, does not 1Cor. 15:3,4 imply that since Paul proclaimed the death, buriel, resurrection on the third day as according to the Scriptures, that at least two of the four Gospels had already been written and considered Scripture? Date: 26 Feb 2006
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